Turning to the New Testament, three passages are typically cited.  The first is Romans 1.26-27: "Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts.  Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones.  In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another.  Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion."

At first reading, Paul seems clearly to consider homosexual activity to be unbiblical.  But there is another way to interpret the passage, suggested by those who support homosexuality as a biblical lifestyle.  In their reading, Paul is addressing the issue of heterosexual men and women who choose homosexual activity which is "unnatural" for them.  If this is true, Paul's statement bears no relevance to those who consider themselves homosexual by innate or "natural" orientation.

Is such an interpretation the most objective way to read the text?  No, for two reasons.  First, Paul describes homosexual acts themselves as "shameful lusts" (v. 26), "indecent acts" and "perversion" (v. 27).  To suggest that his descriptions relate only to the (supposed) decision to engage in such activity by heterosexuals is to strain the Greek syntax beyond its meaning.

Second, Paul states that men who engage in homosexual activity "abandoned natural relations with women," making clear the fact that he considers heterosexuality to be "natural."  Likewise, he describes lesbian activity as "unnatural."

One can conclude that Paul was wrong, that homosexual orientation can be "natural" and its sexual expression therefore "natural relations."  But one cannot argue on the basis of this text that homosexuality is biblical, for Paul's Scriptural words clearly state the opposite.

The next New Testament text typically included in our topic is 1 Corinthians 6.9-10, "Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God?  Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God."

"Male prostitutes" could refer to men who sold themselves sexually, either in heterosexual or homosexual activity.  As translated by the New International Version, the word would not necessarily speak to our subject, as prostitution of any kind is almost universally understood to be immoral.

But the Greek word so translated is more likely a technical term for the passive partner in homosexual activity (Fritz Rienecker, A Linguistic Key to the Greek New Testament, 2:56).  And so it may well refer to one who engages in homosexuality, without a necessary connection to prostitution.  The activity it describes makes it harder to assert that Paul had no concept of homosexual orientation, but meant his words only for heterosexuals who practice (for unexplained reasons) homosexual behavior.

The other term germane to our discussion is translated by the NIV as "homosexual offenders."  The Greek word is defined by Fritz Rienecker as "a male who has sexual relations with a male, homosexual."  Here the word has no connection with prostitution.  Again, one can claim that Paul was wrong in his understanding of human sexuality.  But it seems to me that we cannot read his words in their intended meaning as accepting of homosexual activity.

The last passage for our study is part of Paul's first letter to Timothy.  Here is the paragraph in which our verse is found: "We know that the law is good if one uses it properly.  We also know that law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious; for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers, for adulterers and perverts, for slave traders and liars and perjurers--and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine that conforms to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which he entrusted to me" (1 Timothy 1:8-11).

The phrase in question is found in verse 10, translated by the NIV as "adulterers and perverts."  "Adulterers" renders the root Greek word pornos, from which we get "pornography," and means one who practices sexual immorality.  When accented on the second syllable, it frequently refers to one who operates a brothel.  When accented on the first syllable, as in our text, it can refer to homosexual activity.

"Perverts" renders the Greek word arsenokoites, typically translated as "homosexual."  We met it yesterday, at 1 Corinthians 6:9, where it is translated by the NIV as "homosexual offenders."  The word means literally "one who has sexual relations with men."  While some attempt to interpret the word as it is found in 1 Cor. 6 with reference to prostitution, such a connection is even more difficult to maintain in the present text.

And so once more we find Paul addressing the subject at hand, with what appears to be the clear position that homosexuality is an unbiblical practice or lifestyle.  Such is the consistent teaching of the New Testament on the subject.